- (Exam Topic 2)
A Security engineer needs to implement an MDM solution that complies with the corporate mobile device policy. The policy states that in order for mobile users to access corporate resources on their devices, the following requirements must be met:
Mobile device OSs must be patched up to the latest release. 
A screen lock must be enabled (passcode or biometric). Corporate data must be removed if the device is reported lost or stolen.
Which of the following controls should the security engineer configure? (Select two).
Correct Answer:CD
Posture checking and remote wipe are two controls that the security engineer should configure to comply with the corporate mobile device policy. Posture checking is a process that verifies if a mobile device meets certain security requirements before allowing it to access corporate resources. For example, posture checking can check if the device OS is patched up to the latest release and if a screen lock is enabled. Remote wipe is a feature that allows the administrator to erase all data from a mobile device remotely, in case it is lost or stolen. This can prevent unauthorized access to corporate data on the device.
- (Exam Topic 2)
The alert indicates an attacker entered thousands of characters into the text box of a web form. The web form was intended for legitimate customers to enter their phone numbers. Which of the attacks has most likely occurred?
Correct Answer:B
A buffer overflow attack occurs when an attacker inputs more data than the buffer can store, causing the excess data to overwrite adjacent memory locations and corrupt or execute code1. In this case, the attacker entered thousands of characters into a text box that was intended for phone numbers, which are much shorter. This could result in a buffer overflow attack that compromises the web application or server. The other options are not related to this scenario. Privilege escalation is when an attacker gains unauthorized access to higher-level privileges or resources2. Resource exhaustion is when an attacker consumes all the available resources of a system, such as CPU, memory, disk space, etc., to cause a denial of service3. Cross-site scripting is when an attacker injects malicious code into a web page that is executed by the browser of a victim who visits the page.
References: 1: https://www.fortinet.com/resources/cyberglossary/buffer-overflow 2:
https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/privilege-escalation/ 3: https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/resource-exhaustion/ : https://owasp.org/www-community/attacks/xss/
- (Exam Topic 1)
Which of the following biometric authentication methods is the MOST accurate?
Correct Answer:B
Retina authentication is the most accurate biometric authentication method. Retina authentication is based on recognizing the unique pattern of blood vessels and other features in the retina. This makes it virtually impossible to duplicate or bypass, making it the most secure form of biometric authentication currently available.
- (Exam Topic 2)
A manager for the development team is concerned about reports showing a common set of vulnerabilities. The set of vulnerabilities is present on almost all of the applications developed by the team. Which of the following approaches would be most effective for the manager to use to address this issue?
Correct Answer:B
Invest in secure coding training and application security guidelines is the most effective approach for the manager to use to address the issue of common vulnerabilities in the applications developed by the team. Secure coding training can help the developers learn how to write code that follows security best practices and avoids common mistakes or flaws that can introduce vulnerabilities. Application security guidelines can provide a set of standards and rules for developing secure applications that meet the company’s security requirements and policies. By investing in secure coding training and application security guidelines, the manager can improve the security awareness and skills of the development team and reduce the number of
vulnerabilities in their applications. References: 1
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 9,
Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.3: Summarize secure application development, deployment, and automation concepts 2
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, Domain 2.0:
Architecture and Design, Objective 2.4: Explain the importance of embedded and specialized systems security 3 https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-secure-coding
- (Exam Topic 2)
During a recent security assessment, a vulnerability was found in a common OS. The OS vendor was unaware of the issue and promised to release a patch within the next quarter. Which of the following best describes this type of vulnerability?
Correct Answer:C
A zero-day vulnerability is a security flaw that is unknown to the vendor and the public, and therefore has no patch or fix available. A zero-day attack is an exploit that takes advantage of a zero-day vulnerability before the vendor or the security community becomes aware of it. A zero-day attack can cause serious damage to a system or network, as there is no defense against it until a patch is released. References: https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/certification/security-domain-1-threats-attacks-and-vulnerabilities/ 
https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-501/zero-day-attacks-4/